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February 7th, 2010, search related
Related posts :: Are corporations people ? :: Are corporations people ? :: Are corporations people ? :: Are corporations people ?

In a message dated 2/2/2010 2:03:31 PM Eastern Standard Time,
janstr at wirehub.nl writes:

Dear All,

I recently heard the US Supreme Court has decided that corporations are
people,
i.a. implying entitlement to First Amendment rights and protection.

I was wondering on what philosophical grounds this decision was
based. At first
thought it seems to me a grotesque fallacy to equate people with
corporations.

Don’t they belong to completely different (ontological) categories ?

yours,
Jan
Hi Jan;
“People” is a euphemism for soverign entity. Like “persona” it is a means
of masking or concealing the nature of what is soverign. Persona has little
to do with people or a person insofar as it is a functional mask of
concealment (*lethe*). The legalese “person” has little to do with a corporate
entity but to effect limited liability on an actual (not a virtual) person. What
is masked in this case is that a person may be immoral and criminal and
get away with it. As much is maintained on the corporate “capitalist” level as
it is in the mono-capitalism of the socialist state. The only exception to
this rule would be the Great Dictators, such as Hitler, Stalin and Mao Tse
Tung the latter of which is the champ of all mass murderers, exterminating
70,000,000 poltically undesireable Chinese and with hardly a blink from
anyone. Obviously, Great dictators do not have to worry about maintaining their
limited liability. In fact a member of the Obama regime actually endorsed Mao
as a favorite person. Short of that on the private corporate level, the
intrinsic animal nature of “person” and its transgressive predispositions are
accommodated if not socially intgrated and thus able to function in a Civil
State where a concept of “freedom for all” is held as premium.
sincerely,
Bernard X Bovasso



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