Axiom 0 and its Translation (1)***
December 30th, 2007, search relatedRelated posts :: Yes, I Have No Holerons :: Axiom 0 and its Translation (1) :: The Relationship between Axiom and Translation :: Is Dasein a Reality?
In a message dated 12/30/2007 10:40:45 AM Eastern Standard Time,
GEVANS613 at aol.com writes:
My dictionary’s definition of *invoke* Summon into action or bring into
existence, often as if by magic. Tell us please how does uttering the word *be*
make *nothingness* actionable? Which Heideggerian magic spell brings
*nothingness* into *existence?*
Dear Jud;
Drop your knickers, not your dictionary if it has not brought to your
attention that antonyms are axiomatic, eg., Webster: “a word of opposite meaning
*the usual antonym of good is bad.*” Or black and white, up and down, in and out,
or however else the *complexio oppositorum* imposes itself as something more
than a rubric. Ergo; there IS no nothing without something or “existence”
without “nothingness,” and please excuse the double negative which doesn’t, as
your mates in polemos, give a hoot about the generally atrophied understanding
of “object” because all so content to neglect “subject.” So, sail on m’lads
on the good ship HMS Tautologic on its sea of *circulus in probando.”
Sincerely;
Bernard
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