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December 1st, 2007, search related
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Origin of the I-2

Anthony Crifasi wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>Anthony Crifasi wrote:

[Joseph]: on the other hand, the idea that the I-2 could be
self-instantiating is another matter. can you give a plausible
explanation of how this could possibly be the case?

[Anthony]: No I can’t, but only because I’ve never *seen* that happen.

[Joseph]: my point is that no one has seen an I-2 instantiated by an I-1
or by an I-3 either. that is a fundamental question for
psychophilosophical inquiry: what generates the I-2.

[Anthony]: no it’s not. It’s not just about whether anyone has ever seen
an I-2 instantiated by an I-1, but whether it’s even a conceivable
concept in the first place. That’s a more fundamental question.

[Joseph]: Okay, you can’t give a plausible explanation of how an I-2
could be self-instantiating; and, I-2 can’t give you a plausible account
of how an I-1 can instantiate an I-2.

[Anthony]: wrong. I can’t give a plausible explanation of how an I-2 can
be self-instantiating, and I-2 can’t give a plausible account of how an
I-1 can instantiate an I-2 OR EVEN EXPLAIN WHAT THAT COULD POSSIBLY MEAN
AT ALL. So it’s not even; it’s lopsided in my favor.

[Joseph]: that leaves us with the fundamental question: is there an I-3
(which might somehow account for the presence of experiencers within a
field of experiences)?

[Anthony]: That would be no less inconceivable than an I-1.

it seems that we both agree that we can’t give a plausible explanation
of how an I-2 can be self-instantiating.

does it not follow that the I-2 must be instantiated by something else?


Philosophy is, after all, done ultimately in the first person for the
first person. — H-N Castaneda

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