The Relationship between Axiom and Translation
November 24th, 2007, search relatedRelated posts :: The Relationship between Axiom and Translation :: Yes, I Have No Holerons :: Axiom 0 and its Translation (1) :: Is Dasein a Reality?
In a message dated 11/24/2007 2:48:07 PM Eastern Standard Time,
crifasian at gmail.com writes:
Is it possible that the meta-phenomenal “reality” behind “me” is the
same as the one behind “you” (i.e., that our consciousnesses are
actually two aspects of one meta-phenomenal reality)? If not, how do you
know that it’s not? And if so, then wouldn’t that completely undermine
the metaphenomenal reality of the distinction between “me” and “you” and
“him/her”? (i.e., between first, second, and third persons)?
Bernard: Jung long ago referred to the “meta-phenomenal ‘reality’”
as the “collective unconscious” and which he later modifed simply as
“objective psyche.” But since the distinction between “me” and “you” is an ego (”I”)
reality limited to the personal rather than collective unconscious the mutual
“I” realities remain intact in terms of difference. This breaks down or is
undermined during a psychotic state when invasions from the collective,
ur-gestalt unconscious invade the “I” reality and deconstruct it. In that case there
can be no other in the abscence of the “I.”
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