WAS HEIDEGGER POSSESSED BY THE DEVIL?
August 30th, 2006, search relatedRelated posts :: WAS HEIDEGGER POSSESSED BY THE DEVIL? :: WAS HEIDEGGER POSSESSED BY THE DEVIL?) :: WAS HEIDEGGER POSSESSED BY THE DEVIL? :: WAS HEIDEGGER POSSESSED BY THE DEVIL?
> Asan addendum to my previous: given the grandee materialist must hold that
> the likes of possession, the devil, Nazis, etc do not exist, that (is)
> they have no analytical status other than than of nothingness (no thing-
> ness) which means speech about such nothingness is analytically equivalent
> to being nothing (philosophically), then pray why does the priest of
> materialism even mention such nothingnesses (thus becoming nothing,
> silent, in his own terms)? Speaking philosophically about what does not
> exist (for such materialism) is to not exist oneself (as a philosopher
> holding speech about only what does exist as at all anything other than
> nonsense). If only the materialist had an inkling of the courage of his
> convictions (especially considering they are articulated with such great
> force and regularity)… then he and his speech would exist (be good
> speech) in his own terms, and thus could be considered with some degree of
> seriousness (which would be a good thing indeed).
You misunderstood him: it was reverse psychology (employing kind of Weberian
Verstehen, namely giving an appearance of accepting inimical ideology, in
this case metaphysics, in order to combat one’s adversary). It was thus a
rhetorical trick.
Otherwise, suggesting that one’s adversary is possessed by the Devil is fun
and inspiring even for materialists, which do not mean that the possession
takes place in any literal (therefore spiritual) meaning. It is simply a
humoristic way of bashing.
Greetings,
Tudor
