Words Have Changing Referents
May 11th, 2008, search relatedRelated posts :: Words Have Changing Referents :: Words Have Changing Referents :: Predicating Something that is not Nothing :: Self-Indentity Over Time — Is It True At All?
Anthony Crifasi wrote:
>your posts since then support a reconstruction of your argument as
>follows:
>>>* it is a fact that, in english, the first-person singular pronoun is
>>>now and has for centuries been spelled ‘I’.
>>>* it is a fact that a given person uses ‘I’ for self-referencing at
>>various points in time.
>>>* these two facts must have an explanation.
>>>* the only possible explanation is Q, that that the referent of ‘I’
>>>is always self-identical.
>>>* but, at [2], -Q is assumed/concluded: the referent of ‘I’ is never
>>>self-identical.
>>>* therefore … what? that your claim to have found the only possible
>>>explanation for the unchanged spelling of the english first-person
>>>singular pronoun is false?
>>I cited Hume’s explanation here:
>>http://an-archos.com/pipermail/heidegger_an-archos.com/2008-April/033882.html
what you ‘cited’ was a quote from Hume to the effect that the referents
of words were constantly changing. how can that possibly help you
explain how words can retain the same spelling while their referents
change over time?
Joe
–
Philosophy is, after all, done ultimately in the first person for the
first person. — H-N Castaneda
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http://what-am-i.net
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